Re the right to take the whole country, I refer you to this extract
“In international law, there is a principle in international law referred to as Uti Possidetus Juris, literally translating to “as you possess,” a Roman legal doctrine first cited in private municipal law.
So you are saying because Jews have bought land in any cou…
Re the right to take the whole country, I refer you to this extract
“In international law, there is a principle in international law referred to as Uti Possidetus Juris, literally translating to “as you possess,” a Roman legal doctrine first cited in private municipal law.
So you are saying because Jews have bought land in any country they have a right to take the entire country as their own?
You said: Uti Possidetus Juris maintains that when a new country is created where there was not a separate country previously, the borders of the new country are identical to the borders of the last top-level geopolitical entity in that territory.
BUT THERE WAS A SEPARATE COUNTRY AND THAT COUNTRY WAS CALLED PALESTINE AND HAD BEEN FOR MORE THAN 5000 YEARS.
That gazumps your silly rules spewed up by the bot.
However, since Israel has no declared borders it does not exist and the only country which does exist is Palestine. Also, since the Zionist invasion of 1947 following the UN recommendation for partition has not abided by the UN recommendation then that UN mandate is null and void. More important, the UN, League of nations and Lord Balfour had no legal right to partition any country on earth so the 1947 UN recommendation was not just immoral it was illegal. LET'S TEST IT IN A COURT OF LAW SHALL WE?
You said:
Re the right to take the whole country, I refer you to this extract
“In international law, there is a principle in international law referred to as Uti Possidetus Juris, literally translating to “as you possess,” a Roman legal doctrine first cited in private municipal law.
So you are saying because Jews have bought land in any country they have a right to take the entire country as their own?
You said: Uti Possidetus Juris maintains that when a new country is created where there was not a separate country previously, the borders of the new country are identical to the borders of the last top-level geopolitical entity in that territory.
BUT THERE WAS A SEPARATE COUNTRY AND THAT COUNTRY WAS CALLED PALESTINE AND HAD BEEN FOR MORE THAN 5000 YEARS.
That gazumps your silly rules spewed up by the bot.
However, since Israel has no declared borders it does not exist and the only country which does exist is Palestine. Also, since the Zionist invasion of 1947 following the UN recommendation for partition has not abided by the UN recommendation then that UN mandate is null and void. More important, the UN, League of nations and Lord Balfour had no legal right to partition any country on earth so the 1947 UN recommendation was not just immoral it was illegal. LET'S TEST IT IN A COURT OF LAW SHALL WE?